STD's
Find a Conversation
| Sun, 10-02-2005 - 6:45pm |
I was dating a guy for 8 months and we had sex only once about 2 months ago. We did not use condoms (I was on the pill) but he did not orgasm (one too many beers) inside me. I do know that he was one of those males that had "pre-cum"...even though he did not ejaculate in me could I still get an STD like Chlamydia? I have been having some abnormal pain in my uterus area for about a month. I have an appointment to go to the gyno on Tuesday but I don't know if I am having these "pains" because we "broke up" about a month after our first and last sexual encounter...maybe my mind is playing tricks on me? I looked up information about STD's online but I couldn't find anything that specifically stated that chlamydia could be transmitted via pre-cum. Can anyone help me out???
Thank you!!!

Pages
Pages