Why are facials degrading?
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Why are facials degrading?
| Sun, 08-06-2006 - 8:28pm |
I have seen many posts that describe facials as degrading to a woman. Why is that? I've always asked a partner if I could cum on her body before I did it, and wouldn't do it without permission. What is it, though, that makes a facial particularly objectionable? I don't see where it's any more degrading than cumming in her mouth, or on her breasts, etc.

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He probably would have tried to tell her exactly what the guys thought of her; and how it will get around; tried to get her to leave; probably would have ragged on the guys; and when all else failed told them that he'd have no part of it and would have left.
Oh, I absolutely believe in the innate differences of the sexes. And I absolutely believe in the "pack mentality" of males in this situation.
Remember the movie Jodie Foster did about being gang raped in a bar while several male patrons egged the rapists on or just watched and did nothing? It was based on a real crime. I'm sure that happens much more than we even know.
"Oh, I absolutely believe in the innate differences of the sexes."
So you believe that men have a much "stronger" libido than women (not with respect to frequency, but with respect to level of arousal) or you believe that the sexes are innately different with respect to compassion, empathy or selfishness?
Edited 8/16/2006 8:59 am ET by rain_dancer_iam
Yes, that's what I was getting at: That testosterone and its' effects on males (brain development and functionality) may be the cause for the differences. This is why I said that it (sex drive) may be so overpowering (for some men), that all "reason" or abiltity for "compassion" goes out the window. I remember reading about how women and men in prisons have high levels of testosterone; there is a definite link between high levels and criminal behavior.
Edited 8/16/2006 10:56 am ET by rain_dancer_iam
Kat, although I know how frustrating Rice's "all women are asexual" rants can be...maybe he is on to something? What if there truly is a difference in the "type or degree" of arousal that most men experience as opposed to what women experience? We have heard that older men seem to "relax" and usually exhibit more "emotion" than a younger man (attributed to drops in testosterone levels)... What if, a woman's highest arousal, is equal to that of a man's lowest?
Just throwing some thoughts around...not agreeing with Rice, particularly (as they are coming from a highly sexual woman. ;-))
Edited 8/16/2006 12:06 pm ET by rain_dancer_iam
Yes, but those differences begin in utero, before they even have a real libido.
I think living with males most of my life has only proven those differences to me. I certainly didn't start out believing that there are innate differences between the sexes. I used to attribute them to familial and societal conditioning.
No more. I'm convinced.
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