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|Fri, 10-05-2012 - 3:57pm|
anyone know? when a research group says, there's a 1:50 chance of 'whatever' disorder a baby to a pregnant, over 40 woman....are they saying the "50" is out of all women (of any age) or women, who are over 40 only?
Because if the statistics are showing over 40 women only.....the figure looks much better, because there are fewer over 40 women, having babies.