Combined Effectiveness?
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Combined Effectiveness?
| Sat, 08-14-2004 - 11:52pm |
Everytime I'm at the doctor's office I see one of those charts where they show the relative percentages of contraception effectiveness. My question is how do you calculate the combined effectiveness? For example, if I go on the Pill and take it perfectly and we use condoms, what are the statistics on me getting pregnant?

OK, if I’m doing the math correctly…. using the ‘typical use’ figures from the Planned Parenthood site: http://www.plannedparenthood.org/bc/bcfacts2.html The pill is 92% effective and condoms are 85% effective. So, 85% of 8 is 6.8 meaning the risk is still 1.2% using both methods ‘typically’.
If you used the ‘perfect usage’ figures: 99.7% for the pill and 98% for condoms then, 98% of .3 is .294 meaning the risk is .014% or 14 women in 10,000 would get pg while using both the pill and condoms perfectly. Doubling up and perfect use is pretty darn effective!
Good luck,
Jill
If the pill is working (which it should), the effectiveness is 99.5%. If the pill isn't working, then you're relying on a condom, which has an effectiveness that is lower, but use of the pill does not make condoms more effective and use of condoms does not make the pill more effective--you're either depending on one or the other. This is assuming that either the pill does work for you all the time or works for you none of the time. If it works sometimes and not other times....well...that's a gray area.
Some people feel more comfortable using condoms with the pill, some people don't see a need for it, it's up to you what you prefer!
Judie
Co-cl for Birth Control
Cl for Vulvodynia Support
"Truth is not introduced into the individual from without, but was within him all the time." Soren Kierkegaarrd
Edited 8/16/2004 11:36 am ET ET by cl-judie_rae