question about birth control
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| Wed, 01-03-2007 - 4:32pm |
I have a question about the use of the pill and condoms.
I was put on the pill for both medical reasons involving my cycle and the fact that I am starting to be sexually active with my boyfriend. We have been talking recently about have intercourse for the first time (we both are virgins) and I am worried about the whole pregnancy thing and hear somewhere that if both the pill and condoms were used there was a 100% chance that if both used correctly there would be no chance in becoming pregnant. So I was just wondering if someone could verify that for me or clear any misunderstanding.
And just to let everyone know we are waiting until we both are ready and aren't trying to make it the "perfect" moment. It will be a "it happens when and if it is supposed to happen" thing. I just want to be safe.
Thanks ahead of time for everyone's help

Hi sammygal_ivil, welcome!
Jill
To work out the effectiveness of two methods, you multiply the two failure rates together. So for condoms and the pill:
Typical use:
Condom (15%) x Pill (8%)
0.15 x 0.08 = 0.012
So the typical use of both methods has an effectiveness of 98.8%
For perfect use:
Condom (2%) x Pill (0.3%)
0.02 x 0.003 = 0.00006
So perfect use of both methods has an effectiveness of 99.994%
Hope this helps.