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|Fri, 01-28-2005 - 11:29am|
Okay I've been on various TTC or on hold boards and I have a question. I've seen references to the fact that a woman can have an AF - but still not ovulate. I don't mean to be ignorant, but is that true? I thought AF was due to an unfertilized egg - that made it's way via ovulation. Am I missing something?
We've not decided to TTC for sure. Weighing the pros and cons. We both want another baby. . . I'm nearing 42 - had my last children at 40 (twins). I guess I'm wondering how you know when you get periomenapausal, etc.
TIA for any light anyone can share.