I know the official word is that it does not. BUT, I see posts all over the internet asking about it while people "assure" others that they heard from a doctor that it does not, therefore, it does not.
I do not and will not ever believe that. I want to see a blind study done by scientists, not just doctors, and not pharmaceutical companies. Where it compares the outcome of babies whose mothers had been on antidepressants and those who have not been.
I am sickened by people's excuses that if a mother "needed" antidepressants while pregnant, she probably passed something on to the baby. Yet, I have noticed that at the slightest hormonal tear, doctors seem pretty quick to jump in and prescribe medications. I do not believe that the relationship can be explained by mere genetics. Doctors need to stop providing drugs to hormonal pregnant women and start giving emotional support and support groups and such.